Fed's Lacker says letting banks fail will restore market discipline

Title II was needed because the FDIC was insolvent because banks were able to convince regulators (and elected officials) insurance premiums weren't needed.
 
But the more pertinent question must be, is Title II needed now?

IIRC, Dodd-Frank was written in 2009 and went into effect 2010 so it's roughly 5 to 6 years old now.
 
What difference does it make? Banks can mark their portfolio any fucking way they want now. Why would any bank ever have a capital issue in the future?

 
It should be mark-to-market. If you have a LOC out and the market drops 20%, the banks don't decide to mark your portfolio however they want...they mark to market and send out a capital call!

Btw, don't know if you recall but the phrase "What Difference Does It Make?" is very tainted now:

918746d1370961072-another-scandal-hillary-sex-drugs-prostitutes-minors-secret-service-cover-up-memos-what-difference-does-make.jpg
 
Banks big enough to write this shit mark to their internal proprietary model.

In other words, they now mark to convenience... or fantasy, take your pick.
 
Last edited:
I agree.

Should we start a political party called "Mark To Market" and kick Fauxchahontas Warren's ass from a Libertarian side angle? Mark to Convenience (or Fantasy) necessitates bigger government to backstop indecent actions.

Banks big enough to write this shit mark to their internal proprietary model.

In other words, they now mark to convenience... or fantasy, take your pick.
Click to expand...

 
You must log in or register to reply here.
Back
Top